Originally Posted by
Nabterayl
So how does intoxication work in England? Is it a defense to say that, although the purported victim may have been too inebriated to give informed consent, the accused did not and could not reasonably have known that?
I get the notion of a sufficient level of intoxication removing a person's ability to give informed consent to sex. And I get why you might want to make that a question of strict liability. On the other hand, I'm not entirely comfortable with there being no room at all for a non-reckless mistake of fact. In California (whose rape law is deficient in other ways, I think, but generally pretty good) various altered mental states (unconsciousness, sufficient inebriation, etc.) don't count against the accused unless the accused knew or should have known that the purported victim was not in a state fit to consent, and ... I see the argument on both sides, but in general, I think I prefer that to Ohio's strict liability regime.